Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 09:52
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Why do untreated borderlines always blame their partners when they actually think they are normal?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.